Actually, it's historically accurate. Requiring prostitutes or "fallen women" or lower-class women forced into sexual servitude, whichever phraseology suits you, to wear a separate color? That's been done before. It hasn't represented racial distinction. It existed on its own. It was probably a prelude to the invention of race as color-distinct categorization.

Again, you seem ignorant about the lives and experiences of impoverished white women in European nations, and that's impacting you.